pesticide-exam

NATIONAL PESTICIDE APPLICATOR CERTIFICATION

CORE MANUAL CHAPTER REVIEW QUESTIONS

Chapter 1:

PEST MANAGEMENT

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1. Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?

A. Biological control. B. Mechanical control. C. Genetic control. D. Chemical control.

2. Lowering the humidity of stored grains and other food products to reduce damage from mold is an example of which type of pest management method?

A. Biological. B. Mechanical. C. Physical/environmental. D. Regulatory pest control.

3. Which statement is true about biological control methods?

A. If pesticides are part of a biological control program to control an exotic pest, it is better to apply them at the strongest label rate and to choose the more toxic pesticides. B. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control. C. Biological control involves the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies. D. Using several cultural practices works best in biological control.

4. Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of mechanical control method?

A. Exclusion. B. Trapping. C. Cultivation. D. Mulching.

5. Which statement is true about cultural control practices?

A. Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation. B. Trapping is an important cultural control practice. C. Sanitation is not considered a cultural practice. D. Cultural controls involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries.

6. Which statement is true about regulatory pest control?

A. Pest that pose a serious public health threat are rarely regulated by the federal and state agencies. B. Pest that are to be eradicated are rarely under quarantine restrictions. C. Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies. D. Entry of pests across state lines is not regulated.

7. Which statement is true about pest management strategies in IPM?

A. The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels. B. Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program. C. Pesticides are not included in an IPM strategy. D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

8. Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?

A. Planting weed and disease free seed. B. Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations. C. Eliminating rodents from a commercial food establishment. D. Removing from an area a pest that is a public health concern.

9. Which statement is true about action thresholds?

A. The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level. B. The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density. C. Action thresholds are usually easy to establish. D. In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics.

10. Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance?

A. An insect has only one generation per year. B. Continual use of the same pesticide or pesticides from the same chemical class. C. Limiting the number of pesticide applications. D. Applying a pesticide that has little or no residual effect.

Chapter 2:

FEDERAL PESTICIDE LAWS

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1. Which federal agency is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States?

A. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). B. U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). C. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS). D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

2. Which federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products?

A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA). D. Worker Protection Standard (WPS).

3. Which federal law requires that all pesticides meet new safety standards?

A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA). D. Worker Protection Standard (WPS).

4. Which statement about FIFRA is false?

A. State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA. B. Approved pesticide labels have the force of law. C. The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market. D. FIFRA regulates the registration and licensing of pesticide products.

5. Experimental use permits required under Section 5 of FIFRA can be used when conducting experimental field tests on new pesticides or new uses of pesticides on:

A. 10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water. B. 5 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water. C. 7 or more acres of land or 2 or more acres of water. D. Less the 1 acre of land or water.

6. Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations.

A. True. B. False.

7. Which statement about the requirements of the FQPA is true?

A. For setting new standards, the FQPA considers aggregate exposures to pesticides but not cumulative exposures. B. The FQPA does not require review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food. C. The FQPA does not consider additional safety standards to account for exposure risks to infants and children. D. Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is required under the FQPA.

8. Under the federal Endangered Species Protection Program, what must be on pesticide products that might adversely affect an endangered species?

A. A label statement advising applicators to consult a county bulletin to determine if they must take any special precautionary measures when using the product. B. A label statement advising them to consult a local conservation officer for a permit to apply the pesticide. C. A label statement prohibiting them from applying pesticides in all areas where endangered species might be harmed. D. A label statement that lists the endangered species that might be harmed by the pesticide and how to prevent it.

Chapter 3:

PESTICIDE LABELING

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1. What is needed to apply a pesticide legally when a pest problem arises for which a food or feed commodity is not on the registered pesticide label or a tolerance has not yet been established.

A. An emergency exemption. B. Use a restricted use pesticide. C. A minimum risk pesticide classification. D. An emergency registration.

2. Which of the following sections under FIFRA exempts from registration pesticides considered to pose minimum risk?

A. Section 3. B. Section 18. C. Section 24(c). D. Section 25(b).

3. The active ingredient in Lorsban 75WG is listed as chlorpyrifos: 0,0-diethyl 0-(3,5,6-trichloro 2-pyridinyl) phosphorothioate. What does the term "chlorpyrifos" represent?

A. The Brand name. B. The chemical name. C. The common name. D. The registered trade name.

4. Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true?

A. The active ingredients and the inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name. B. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient. C. The common names are those accepted officially by the manufacturer. D. Inert ingredients are responsible for the pesticide activity.

5. What is the purpose of the signal word?

A. To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals. B. Informs the user of what type of PPE to wear. C. Informs the user of how toxic the pesticide is to wildlife and the environment. D. Tells the user what type of first aid treatment to seek in case of exposure.

6. The route of entry statement on the label "Extremely hazardous by skin contact-rapidly absorbed through the skin" would most likely appear with which signal word?

A. DANGER. B. WARNING. C. CAUTION. D. No signal word required.

7. The statement "Do not breathe vapors or spraymist" is an example of:

A. A specific action statement. B. A statement of practical treatment. C. A route of entry statement. D. A protective clothing statement.

8. Which is true about statements of practical treatment?

A. They are not associated with signal words. B. It is not important to have the pesticide label in case of a poisoning emergency. C. Statements about inducing vomiting are not found on the label. D. All DANGER labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures.

9. Directions for mixing and loading are usually found under:

A. The agricultural use requirements. B. The directions for use. C. Environmental hazards. D. Precautionary statements.

10. Who is responsible for developing MSDSs on specific chemicals and providing them on request.

A. The EPA. B. The USDA. C. OSHA. D. The product manufacturer.

Chapter 4:

PESTICIDE FORMULATIONS

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1. The name "Sevin 5G" on a pesticide label indicates:

A. A granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients. B. A gel pesticide with 5 percent active ingredient. C. A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients. D. A gel pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients.

2. Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?

A. ULV solvents. B. Solution. C. Suspension. D. Emulsion.

3. Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1 percent or less per unit volume) dissolved in an organic solvent?

A. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC). B. Ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU). C. Ultra low volume (ULV). D. Flowables (F)/liquids (L).

4. Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient?

A. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC). B. Ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU). C. Ultra low volume (ULV). D. Aerosols (A).

5. Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations?

A. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorate. B. Contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps. C. Require constant agitation to keep in suspension. D. Difficult to handle, transport, and store.

6. Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading?

A. Dusts (D). B. Wettable powders (WP). C. Soluble powders (SP). D. Water dispersible granules (WDG) or dry flowables (DF).

7. Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?

A. Dusts. B. Granules. C. Pellets. D. Baits.

8. Which is an advantage of micro-encapsulated materials?

A. They pose few hazards to bees. B. Delayed or slow release of active ingredient prolongs its effectiveness. C. Their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions. D. They usually require only short restricted entry intervals.

9. Which type of adjuvant functions as wetting agents and spreaders (i.e., they physically alter the surface tension of spray droplets)?

A. Surfactants. B. Stickers. C. Extenders. D. Buffers.

10. Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?

A. Stickers. B. Extenders. C. Plant penetrants. D. Thickeners.

Chapter 5:

PESTICIDE HAZARDS AND FIRST AID

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1. The capacity of a pesticide to cause short term (acute) or long term (chronic) injury is referred to as its:

A. Toxicity. B. Exposure. C. Hazard. D. Oral LD 50

2. Which statement is false about harmful effects of pesticides?

A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation. B. Fumigants can cause severe blisters. C. Asthma like symptoms may be caused by allergies to pesticide. D. Many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis.

3. Which signal word is associated with Hazard Class I and chemicals that have severe corrosive properties but do not necessarily have very low oral LD 50 values?

A. DANGER-POISON. B. DANGER. C. WARNING. D. CAUTION.

4. Which statement is true about pesticide toxicity?

A. A pesticide with an ORAL LD 50 of 250 mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD 50 of 5 mg/kg. B. Manufacturers are not required to include chronic toxicity warning statement on product labels; only acute toxicity warnings are included. C. Delayed effects occur only after a single acute exposure. D. Cholinesterase inhibition due to exposure to organophosphate or carbamate insecticides can cause acute or delayed effects.

5. What is the purpose of routine or emergency cholinesterase monitoring?

A. To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to organphosphate and carbamate insecticides. B. To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to pyrethroid insecticides. C. To enable the pesticide handler to know when to stop using pesticide products during the course of a normal workday. D. To enable the pesticide handler to know when he/she has been overexposed to restricted use pesticides.

6. When should a blood test for baseline cholinesterase be done?

A. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticide use is greatest and at least 14 days into the application season. B. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticides are not being used or at least 30 days from the most recent exposure. C. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticides are not being used within one week of the most recent exposure. D. Baseline testing should be done about halfway through the application season to measure the average amount of pesticide exposure.

7. Which statement is true about pesticide exposure routes?

A. Oil-based liquid pesticide formulations, such as emulsifiable concentrates, do not absorb through the skin. B. Evidence indicates that about 97 percent of all body exposure to pesticides during a spraying operation is by inhalation. C. Some products that cause systemic injury are as toxic when absorbed through the skin as when they are swallowed. D. The palms and forearms absorb more pesticides than warm, moist areas of the body.

8. Which statement is false about first-aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye?

A. Hold the eye open and immediately begin gently washing the eye with drips of clean water. B. The water should be dripped directly into the eye, do not use an eyewash dispenser. C. Continuously rinse the eye for 15 minutes. D. Flush under the eyelid with water to remove debris.

9. What is the first thing you should do to help a victim of inhalation exposure?

A. Get the victim to fresh air. B. Administer artificial respiration. C. Have the victim lie down and loosen clothing. D. Keep the chin up to ensure that air passages are open for breathing.

10. Which statement is true about heat stress.

A. Wearing lots of PPE prevents heat stress. B. Constriction of pupils is a symptom of heat stroke. C. Less than 10 percent of people affected by severe heat stroke die. D. Lack of sweat is a symptom of heat stroke.

Chapter 6:

PERSONNEL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT

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1. Which statement is true about PPE as required by the label?

A. You should not wear more PPE then the label requires. B. Sometimes a label has different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early-entry workers. C. You are not required to wear all the PPE listed on the label. D. Wearing the PPE listed on the label ensures that you will not be exposed to pesticides.

2. Which statement is true about PPE chemical resistance?

A. The ability of a given material to protect an individual from a pesticide product is largely a function of the type of solvent used to formulate the pesticide product. B. Cloth is easy to clean after it becomes contaminated with pesticide, or it can be inexpensively disposed of after each use. C. Cotton, leather, and canvas are chemically resistant to dry formulations. D. Gloves, boots, aprons, and suits made of rubber or plastic are the least chemically resistant.

3. If a pesticide label states that you must wear gloves based on guidelines in Chemical Resistance Category "D", which materials provide the best protection from pesticide?

A. Nitrile rubber or neoprene rubber. B. Natural rubber or polyethylene. C. Polyvinyl chloride or vitron. D. Barrier laminated or butyl rubber.

4. Which parts of the body are most likely to be exposed to pesticides?

A. The hands and forearms. B. The feet and legs. C. The chest and forearms. D. The eyes and lungs.

5. According to the Worker Protection Standard, what must the pesticide handler have access to if the label requires goggles for eye protection?

A. A full faceshield to cover the goggles. B. An eyewash dispenser. C. A half-face respirator. D. A full-face respirator.

6. According to EPA criteria, what type of respirator must you wear when applying liquid pesticide products from Toxicity Class I?

A. Use a NIOSH-approved respirator with any N, R, P, or 100 series prefilter. B. Use a NIOSH-approved respirator with an organic vapor (OV) cartridge or canister with any N, R, P, or 100 series prefilter. C. Use an air-supplying respirator (NIOSH TC-19C). D. Use a self-contained breathing apparatus (NIOSH TC-13F).

7. What is the purpose of the fit check?

A. To select the right size respirator for the user. B. To make sure you have a tight-fitting seal with no leakage each time you use the respirator. C. To see if you can taste or smell any substance leaking into the mask. D. To measure respirator fit by comparing the dust concentration in the surrounding air with the dust concentration inside the respirator.

8. Which is true about disposable PPE?

A. Inexpensive disposables may be a good choice for brief pesticide-handling activities. B. Non-woven coveralls and hoods are usually designed to be worn 7 workdays. C. Dust/mist masks, prefilters, canisters, and filtering and vapor-removing cartridges can be cleaned and reused three or four times before disposing of them. D. Chemical-resistant gloves, footwear, and aprons that are labeled as disposable are designed to be worn three or four times before disposing of them.

9. Which statement is true about washing contaminated PPE?

A. Wash a full load of PPE items at a time. B. Use cold water and one wash cycle. C. Use only very short wash cycles. D. After washing the items, run the washer through at least one additional entire cycle without clothing.

10. Which statement is true about respirator maintenance?

A. Respirator cartridges must be stored in an airtight bag or they lose their effectiveness. B. Inspect respirators twice each year for signs of wear and tear. C. After use, prefilters should be stored in a zip-closable bag with canisters and cartridges. D. Use a substitute canister or cartridge if you cannot find the replacement part for your respirator.

Chapter 7:

PESTICIDES IN THE ENVIRONMENT

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1. Which property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move with water in surface runoff?

A. High solubility. B. High adsorption. C. High volatility D. A tendency to evaporate quickly.

2. Which statement is true about groundwater or surface water contamination by pesticides?

A. Pesticides cannot reach groundwater by runoff. B. Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides. C. Pesticide-contaminated surface water will not reach groundwater. D. Groundwater or surface water contamination risk is low when heavy rain immediately follows a herbicide application.

3. Which is an example of non-point-source contamination of groundwater?

A. Back-siphoning of pesticide spills at a wellhead. B. Leaching from a pesticide mixing area. C. Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains. D. Dumping leftover pesticide products down a well.

4. Under what soil conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through soil?

A. A heavy clay soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow. B. A heavy clay soil, high in organic matter, where groundwater is deep. C. A sandy soil, high inorganic matter, where groundwater is deep. D. A sandy soil, high inorganic matter, where groundwater is shallow.

5. Which is a recommended best management practice for preventing contamination of surface and groundwater by pesticides?

A. Use pesticides that are highly water soluble. B. Use terrace and conservation tillage practices. C. Clean sprayers near sinkholes. D. Select persistent pesticides.

6. What two things should pesticide applicators be most aware of to avoid spray drift?

A. Droplet size and wind direction and speed. B. Air stability and temperature. C. Viscosity of liquid pesticides and air turbulance. D. Temperature and pesticide volatility.

7. What two things should pesticide applicators be most aware of to avoid vapor drift?

A. Droplet size and wind direction and speed. B. Air stability and temperature. C. Viscosity of liquid pesticides and air turbulence. D. Temperature and pesticide volatility.

8. Which statement about sensitive areas is true?

A. Never spray a sensitive area to control a pest for any reason. B. Do not spray a larger target site if it contains a sensitive area. C. Pesticide labels may contain statements that list special precautions around sensitive areas. D. Endangered species habitats are not considered sensitive areas.

9. Which statement is true about protecting bees from pesticide injury?

A. Wettable powders are the safest formulation for preventing bee injury. B. It is best to spray crops when they are in bloom. C. Aerial applications are less hazardous to bees than ground applications. D. Applying pesticides in the evening or during the early morning is recommended.

Chapter 8:

TRANSPORTATION, STORAGE, AND SECURITY

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1. Which statement about transporting pesticides is true?

A. Carry hazardous pesticides in the passenger compartment of a vehicle to prevent unauthorized access. B. Enclosed cargo boxes offer the greatest protection but are not always practical. C. Operators of vehicles that transport hazardous materials are not required to have any special training, only a commercial driver's license. D. The operator is not held responsible if a pesticide spill or accident occurs because the vehicle was left unattended.

2. Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true?

A. If pesticides are stored in a small, locked cabinet or closet, it is not necessary to post warning signs. B. Carefully consider soil and land surface characteristics when selecting a storage site to prevent potential contamination of water sources. C. Store pesticides in a warm, airtight environment. D. The floor of the pesticide storage site should consist of materials such as carpeting or wood.

3. To prevent damage to pesticide labels, you may use transparent tape or a coating of lacquer or polyurethane to protect them.

A. True. B. False.

4. What is the first thing you should do if you notice a damaged pesticide container?

A. Put on appropriate personal protective equipment. B. Transfer the contents into another sturdy container that can be tightly closed. C. Use the pesticide immediately at a site and at a rate allowed by the label. D. Clean up any spilled chemical.

5. Which practice for minimizing storage problems is not recommended?

A. Buy large quantities of pesticides to reduce costs and ensure that the chemicals you use are available when you need them. B. Keep records of previous usage to make good estimates of future needs. C. Mark each pesticide container with the purchase date, and keep an inventory of all pesticides in storage. D. Be sure to note if the product has an effective shelf life listed on the label.

6. What is the first step a business should take to develop a sound pesticide security program?

A. Coordination with authorities. B. Risk management. C. Employee training in security awareness. D. Evaluation of pesticide security.

7. Which would not be considered a good security practice?

A. Instructing employees on pesticide inventory control. B. Preventing access to equipment used in mixing, loading, or applying pesticides. C. Replacing employees often with new personnel. D. Reporting suspicious behavior to the FBI.

Chapter 9:

EMERGENCY OR INCIDENT RESPONSE

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1. Which statement about emergency response planning is true?

A. Your emergency response plan should reflect only the off-season inventory of pesticides stored at your facility. B. As long as you have an emergency response plan at your facility, it is not necessary to designate an emergency response coordinator. C. In the event of an emergency, the first person to contact would be your attorney. D. It is important to keep with your emergency list an outline of the information that should be passed along during an emergency notification call.

2. What is the backbone of any emergency response plan?

A. Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis. B. Having a pesticide inventory readily available. C. Knowing where copies of labels and material safety data sheets are kept. D. Keeping an inventory of emergency equipment and supplies on site.

3. Which is not a recommended action to take in the event of a fire involving pesticides?

A. Construct dikes to contain contaminated runoff water. B. Notify the fire department and inform the firefighters of the nature of the pesticides involved. C. Contain small fires with fog, foam, or dry powder. D. Use water jets to put out the pesticide fire.

4. Which would not be an action to take in the case of a pesticide spill.

A. Rope off the contaminated area, keeping people at least 30 feet from the spill. B. Contain liquid spills by spreading absorbent materials such as fine sand, vermiculite, clay, or pet litter over the entire spill. C. Use sawdust or sweeping compounds to control pesticides that are strong oxidizers. D. Use absorbent pillows or tubes to dike around the spill area.

5. Which statement is true about proper cleanup procedures for pesticide spills.

A. Remove the top 1 inch of soil to decontaminate soil saturated with pesticide. B. Sweep up the absorbed chemical and place it in a steel or fiber drum lined with a heavy duty plastic bag. C. Use bleach and lime together to clean up spill areas. D. Use charcoal briquets to reduce soil contamination and subsequent plant damage.

Chapter 10:

PLANNING THE PESTICIDE APPLICATION

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1. Determining when to apply a pesticide includes consideration of:

A. The life cycle of the pest and weather conditions. B. The percent active ingredient. C. The need for additives or adjuvants. D. What safety measures you should follow.

2. The directions for use on a pesticide label indicate:

A. The various crops or areas on which the pesticide may be legally used. B. The disposal of pesticide waste. C. The environmental, physical, and chemical hazards. D. Treatment procedures in case of exposure.

3. When two or more pesticides mixed together form a putty or paste, separate into layers, or look like cottage cheese, it is an example of:

A. Timing incompatibility. B. Placement incompatibility. C. Chemical incompatibility. D. Physical incompatibility.

4. What is the usual order for tank mixing pesticides.

A. Fill tank one-fifth to one-half full with carrier, add suspension products, add emulsion products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add compatibility agent (if needed). B. Fill tank one-fifth to one-half full with carrier, add compatibility agent (if needed), add suspension products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add emulsion products. C. Fill tank one-fifth to one -half full with carrier, add surfactants (if needed), add emulsion products, add solution products, add compatibility agent (if needed). D. Fill tank one-fifth to one -half full with carrier, add suspension products, add emulsion products, add solution products, add compatibility agent (if needed), add surfactants (if needed).

5. Which statement about the proper technique for opening pesticide containers is true?

A. You should tear open paper or cardboard containers carefully. B. Put on the appropriate PPE after the containers have been opened. C. Use a sharp knife or scissors to open paper or cardboard containers. D. Leave the container open until you are done mixing pesticides for the day.

6. Which statement about measuring and transferring pesticides is true?

A. When pouring any pesticide from its container, keep the container and pesticide above face level. B. Metal measuring utensils are recommended over plastic. C. Most dusts, powders, and dry formulations are measured by volume. D. After adding the pesticide to the partially filled spray tank, the measuring container should be rinsed and the rinse solution poured into the tank.

7. Which statement about cleaning and disposing of pesticide containers is true?

A. Do not puncture rinsed pesticide containers. B. When rinsing pesticide containers, pour the rinsate down the drain. C. Pesticide containers that cannot be recycled or returned to the manufacturer should be reused. D. Containers must be disposed of in accordance with the label directions and federal, state, and local laws and regulations.

8. Which statement about triple-rinsing and pressure rinsing pesticide containers is true?

A. You must wear protective clothing for triple-rinsing but not for pressure-rinsing. B. Triple-rinsing requires the use of a special nozzle. C. Both triple-rinsed and pressure-rinsed containers are considered non-hazardous waste. D. Triple-rinsing is more effective then pressure-rinsing.

9. Which statement about pesticide rinsates is true?

A. Rinsates may be applied to the labeled target sites below labeled rates. B. Dispose of rinsates by pouring them down a sink or drain. C. Rinsates containing strong cleaning agents may be reused in pesticide mixtures. D. The amount of pesticide in the rinsate plus the amount of pesticide product in the new mixture may exceed the label rate for the target site.

10. Which statement about pesticide equipment cleanup is false.

A. Several commercial pesticide tank-cleaning compounds are available. B. Sprayers should be thoroughly rinsed with a water-detergent solution for several minutes. C. When getting ready to store your sprayer, add some lightweight oil to the tank before the final flushing. D. Leave pesticide residues in the spray tank when changing products.

Chapter 11:

PESTICIDE APPLICATION PROCEDURES

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1. Which type of pesticide application procedure involves the uniform application of a pesticide to an entire area or field?

A. Broadcast application. B. Band application. C. Directed-spray application. D. Basal application.

2. Which type of pesticide application would you use to control cockroaches inside of buildings?

A. Broadcast application. B. Band application. C. Crack and crevice application. D. Basal application.

3. An enclosed cab always provides enough protection from pesticide exposure to allow applicators to use less PPE than recommended on the label.

A. True. B. False.

4. Which statement about containment pads is true?

A. They should not be used if you mix and load frequently at the same site. B. Pads make spill cleanup more difficult. C. Pads should be made of permeable materials. D. Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixed.

5. Which statement about sprayer nozzles is true?

A. A nozzle that primarily produces fine droplets is usually selected to minimize off-target drift. B. Coarse-sized droplets supply maximum coverage of the target. C. Nozzle material should be selected based on the pesticide formulation. D. Brass tips should be used when applying abrasive materials.

6. Which statement about granular applicators is true?

A. They do not require calibration. B. Ground speed has no effect on the application rate. C. In a rotary spreader, lighter granules are thrown farther than heavy ones. D. Drop spreaders are preferred over rotary spreaders when more precise placement of the pesticide is desired.

7. Which technique would help to minimize off target drift?

A. Spray during a temperature inversion. B. Use the largest droplets practical to provide necessary coverage. C. Increase the height of the nozzles above the target. D. Increase pressure and travel speed.

8. You are applying a pesticide to a triangle area that has a base of 60 feet and a height of 30 feet. What is the area?

A. 300 square feet. B. 600 square feet. C. 900 square feet. D. 1,200 square feet.

9. You are applying a pesticide to a circular area with a 20-foot diameter. What is the area?

A. 128 square feet. B. 314 square feet. C. 400 square feet. D. 628 square feet.

10. You have calibrated your equipment to spray 50 gallons per acre. You need to spray 1 acre. The label calls for 3 pounds of formulation per 100 gallons of water. How much formulation should you add to the tank in order to make 50 gallons of finished spray.

A. 1.5 pounds. B. 2 pounds. C. 2.5 pounds. D. 3 pounds.

Chapter 12:

PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

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1. According to FIFRA, what is the minimum standard for direct supervision of a pesticide application by uncertified individuals?

A. The application is done by a competent person with the certified applicator present at the time and place the pesticide is applied. B. The application is done by a competent person acting under the instruction and control of a certified applicator who is available if and when needed. C. The application is done by a competent person who has received a six-month training course by a certified applicator. D. The application is done by a person who has passed a competency exam.

2. Under which set of circumstances would the certified applicator be required to be physically present at the application site?

A. Whenever a restricted-use pesticide is applied. B. Whenever any type of pesticide is applied by an uncertified individual. C. If the state law or the label requires it. D. When the pesticide is being applied inside or around a public building.

3. Which would be an appropriate way to describe a relatively low-toxicity pesticide product to the customer?

A. Environmentally friendly. B. Non-toxic. C. EPA-approved. D. Use with caution.

4. Which is true about preapplication posting requirements?

A. All states require notification of school staff members 72 hours before an application is to be made to a school. B. Some states maintain a registry of sensitive individuals who must be informed if a pesticide application is going to be made near them. C. States do not vary in the minimum notification requirements to concerned individuals. D. All states require residential areas to be posted before a pesticide application is made.

5. Which statement about posting and notification requirements is false?

A. Some states may require you to provide copies of labels and material safety data sheets at the time of application or upon request by customer. B. States and other governmental entities may require posting of treated sites immediately following a pesticide application. C. Posting usually involves placing a small plastic flag or sign in a conspicuous place tp alert people to avoid treated areas. D. Most states require posting of and notification about pesticide applications made to agricultural areas.